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Hi, guys,
for the vibration, how to represent U/U0 in terms of r, where r is equal to w/wn, and wn=(k/m)^1/2, as the natural frequency?
Please see the attachment.
Thank you in advance.
May the force be with you!
Shawn
Solved! Go to Solution.
I can't read your worksheet, because it's in Prime 3.1 format, and the picture is clearly not the entire worksheet, but you can rewrite your final expression using the substitute keyword. Since r=w/wn, w=r*wn. So use the substitute keyword with w=r*wn. You can then use the substitute keyword again, with wn=(k/m)^1/2.
Edit. Actually, just change you second line to be w:=r*wn. Then the final line should evaluate the way you want.
I can't read your worksheet, because it's in Prime 3.1 format, and the picture is clearly not the entire worksheet, but you can rewrite your final expression using the substitute keyword. Since r=w/wn, w=r*wn. So use the substitute keyword with w=r*wn. You can then use the substitute keyword again, with wn=(k/m)^1/2.
Edit. Actually, just change you second line to be w:=r*wn. Then the final line should evaluate the way you want.
Sorry that I made a mistake about the subscript, Fred got me corrected.
You have p with two subscripts--0 (zero) and o. Your picture doesn't give enough information to address the problem.
I just did it MC15 and it worked like Richard had suggested (don't think that p.0 vs p.o was done on purpose):
Yep, I just tried it in Prime, works too.
Thank you
Yes, I made a mistake...
Sorry that I got overwhelmed but the mid term yesterday night.
Yours answer got me the desired result.
Thank you, Fred,
You are always helpful!