On 7/29/2009 12:11:32 PM, Jbryant61 wrote:
>Sure. Here it is.
See the attached
>I never asked but assumed the
>normalisation to area has
>something to do with the
>convolution and not having to
>mess about with constants?
If you have the convolution C=A*B, and the area of B is 1, then the area of C is equal to the area of A. So if B represents an instrumental broadening then that broadening redistributes signal, but does not change the total amount of signal. So the instrumental broadening function should always be defined in such a way that it's area is equal to 1.
Richard