Apparently your Vin is a square wave...
Have you tried what Prime finds for the invlaplace of just:
tanh(s) ?
According to WolframAlpha it's:

I don't see how Prime got an infinit'th derivative in there, but that's what it tries to do apparently.
That said, I don't think you will be able to solve this problem in this generic way. Try to describe your input for just a few cycles of the square wave, instead of the general square wave. That gives you a better chance of performing the inverse laplace. I suggest you have alook here: https://community.ptc.com/t5/PTC-Mathcad/Square-Sine-and-PiceWise-Linear-Waves-Functions/m-p/718121#M194834
And, if you're only curious about the form of the resulting wave, use a circuit simulator (SPICE, LTspice, or the like).
Success!
Luc